§ Coercive operator
- This is called as the lax milgram theorem, but in lawrence and narici, it's a fucking lemma (lol).
- Suppose there is an operator A:X→Y whose norm is bounded below : That is, there exists a ksuch that for all x, k∣∣x∣∣≤∣∣Ax∣∣.
- Intuitively, this forces A to "spread vectors" out, making it one-one.
- Intuitively, this makes the inverse bounded, because the inequality "flips direction" when we consider the inverse operator.
- See that we do not require A to be bounded! We will still get a bounded inverse operator.
§ Step 1: A is one to one
- Suppose At=0. We will show that this implies t=0.
- k∣∣t∣∣≤∣∣At∣∣. That is, k∣∣t∣∣≤0. Since k>0, this implies ∣∣t∣∣=0 or t=0.
§ Step 2: A−1 is bounded
- Define A−1(y)≡x when Ax=y.
- Since k∣∣x∣∣≤∣∣Ax∣∣, we write Ax=y, and thus x=A−1y.
- This gives us k∣∣A−1y∣∣≤y.
- This means that ∣∣A−1y∣∣≤(1/k)y, thereby establishing the boundedness of A.
- Thus, A is a bounded linear operator.
§ Claim: This is in fact sufficient: Every invertible operator A with bounded inverse has such a lower bound k.
- Reverse the proof: take the bound of A−1 to be k and show that this lower bounds A.
- We can thus define A−1:Range(A)→X