§ Dirichlet inversion
We call all functions f:Z→R as
arithmetic functions , since they operate on the integers.
We introduce an operator f⋆g:Z→R.
It is defined by:
- (f⋆g)(n)≡∑d∣nf(d)g(n/d)
We will show that the set of arithmetic functions forms a group
under the operator ⋆, with identity:
id⋆(n)≡⌊1/n⌋={10n=1otherwise
The reason all of this is interesting is that the inverse of the constant function 1(n)≡1
is going to be this function called as the mobius function μ:
μ(n=p1α1p2α2…prαr)≡{0(−1)α1+α2+⋯+αrif any αi>1if all αi∈{0,1}
The mobius function will allow us to perform mobius inversion :
f(n)f⋆1−1f⋆μ≡d∣n∑g(d)=d∣n∑g(d)1(n/d)=g⋆1=g⋆1⋆1−1=g
That is, we originally had f defined in terms of g. We can
recover an expression for g in terms of f.
§ The algebra of multiplicative functions
We claim that the set of functions {Z→C}
is a commutative group, with the group operation ⋆ such that:
- (f⋆g)(n)≡∑d∣nf(d)g(n/d).
with the identity element being id⋆(n)≡⌊1/n⌋. The idea
is that if (n=1), then ⌊1/1⌋=1, and for any other
number n>0, 1/n<1, hence ⌊1/n⌋=0.
§ verification of istar being the identity
(f⋆id⋆)(n)≡d∣n∑f(d)id⋆(n/d)=f(n)id⋆(1)+d∣n,d>1∑f(n)id⋆(d)=f(n)⋅1+d∣n,d>1∑f(n)⋅0=f(n)
§ associativity, commutativity of ⋆
To prove associativity, it's better to write the formula as:
(f⋆g)(n)≡d∣n∑f(n)g(n/d)=xy=n∑f(x)g(y)
From this rewrite, it's clear that (f⋆g⋆h)(n) will unambiguously
sum over tripes (x,y,z) such that xyz=n. I leave the working-this-out
to you. This should also make the commutativity immediate. Summing over pairs
of the form f(x)g(y):xy=n is the same as summing over f(y)g(x):yx=n.
§ Existence of inverse
We can show that an inverse exists by showing that a formula for it exists; The
idea is to construct one by induction.
Clearly, for a given function f, we need the inverse f−1 to be such that
(f⋆f−1)(n)=id⋆. Hence:
(f⋆f−1)(1)=id⋆(1)=1f(1)f−1(1)=1f−1(1)≡1/f(1)
Great, we have a base case; We can now compute f−1(n) inductively, assuming
we know the value of f−1(d) for all d∣n.
(f⋆f−1)(n)=id⋆(1)=0d∣n∑f(d)f−1(n/d)=0f(1)f−1(n)+d∣n,d<n∑f(d)f−1(n/d)=0f−1(n)=−f(1)∑d∣n,d<nf(d)f−1(n/d)
§ μ as the inverse of the one function
§ Mobius inversion
Now that we know that μ=const 1−1, we can use this fact
to perform mobius inversion :
f(n)≡d∣n∑g(n/d)=const 1⋆g
We have f written in terms of g. We can now write g in terms of f:
f(n)=const 1⋆gf⋆const 1−1=gg=f⋆μg=d∣n∑f(d)μ(n/d)
§ n=∑d∣nϕ(d)
d1234612{1≤x≤12:(x,12)=d}{1,5,7,11}{2,10}{3,9}{4,8}{6}{12}(x/12,1)=1{1≤x≤12:(x/d,12/d)=1}(x,12)=1(x/2,6)=1(x/3,4)=1(x/4,3)=1(x/6,2)=11size of set42221
Notice that the sizes of sets that we are calculating, for example,
∣{1≤x≤12:(x/2,6)=1}∣=ϕ(6). Summing over all of
what we have, we've counted the numbers in [1,2,…,12] in two ways ---
one directly, and the other by partitioning into equivalence classes:
12=ϕ(1)+ϕ(2)+ϕ(3)+ϕ(4)+ϕ(6)+ϕ(12)=d∣12∑ϕ(12/d)
In general, the same argument allows us to prove that:
n=d∣n∑n/d
§ Using mobius inversion on the euler totient function
§ Other arithmetical functions and their relations